Watch the video at the following URL:
This is the first time that I have ever heard a preacher
preach against remarriage after divorce.
Up until now, I thought that I was the only one who believed what the
Scriptures teach about this. Some
preachers teach that remarriage after divorce is wrong in theory, but they make
so many exceptions that they may as well not bother to believe the original
principle. But this is not true of James
Merritt. He teaches the hardline
position that fornication is the only reason for a divorce that would make it
justifiable to marry another afterwards.
He correctly teaches that things like alcoholism, physical abuse,
gambling, etc. are legitimate reasons for a woman to leave her husband, but not
to marry another man. I also like that
he teaches that just because a remarriage might not break an explicit
commandment of God, that doesn’t necessarily mean that it is right or justified.
However, the Bible actually only teaches that if a man puts
away his wife for any reason except fornication and then marries another woman,
he commits adultery (see Matthew 19:9) and that if a man marries a woman who
has been put away (Matthew 5:32, Luke 16:18) or a woman who put away her husband
(Mark 10:12) it is adultery. In other
words, the exception for fornication is only for the remarriage of a man, not the
remarriage of a woman in that situation.
But Merritt uses the following argument to try to prove that
if you reverse the genders in Matthew 19:9, resulting statement will still be
true. Such a “gender-reversed” statement
would read :
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away her husband because, except it be for fornication,
and shall marry another, committeth adultery...
He says that Jesus wouldn’t have talked about a woman
divorcing (putting away) her husband because women were not allowed to do that
at that time. This argument has several
flaws.
1.
Even though women were not allowed to divorce
their husbands, that doesn’t necessarily mean that sometimes they didn’t do it anyway!
2.
The argument assumes that Jesus was exclusively
directing his words to the people living in Israel (or that general part of the
world) at that particular time. In other
words, the Creator of universe was completely unaware that his words would be
written down and read by hundreds of millions people from many different
cultures and centuries including those in which women could divorce their
husbands. In reality, Jesus’ words are timeless
teachings that don’t generally need any “cultural interpretation”.
3.
The argument simply doesn’t logically follow
from the fact he asserts. Hypothetically
speaking, Jesus may have omitted the hypothetical “gender-reversed” statement above
for the reason that Merritt suggests.
But he offers no proof that the reason isn’t something else. The “something else” could very well be that
the statement isn’t actually true, couldn’t it?
4.
But the strongest evidence that this argument
should be rejected is that Jesus does in fact specifically teach in Mark 10:12 that
if a woman puts away her husband, it is adultery for a man to marry her (with
no exception for fornication given). How
can you say “Jesus wouldn’t have talked about this…”, if he did in fact talk
about it? In all likelihood, the words which
Jesus spoke in Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:12 (and Luke 16:18 as well) were contained
in the very same discourse that Jesus was having with the people.
1.
Same as 1. above.
2.
The Holy Spirit guided the New Testament authors
when they wrote the books of the New Testament.
There is even more reason to believe that the Holy Spirit knew that the
words would be read by generations to come.
Therefore there would be no reason to omit the hypothetical statement if
Jesus had actually said it.
3.
Analogous to 3. above.
4.
Same as 4. above.
Another possible consequence of this “gender-reversing” of
the text is that a man cannot remarry if his wife left him without his consent
(i.e. if the wife put her husband away). A “gender-reversed” version of the
last part of Matthew 5:32 would read, “whosoever shall marry him
that is divorced committeth adultery…” While there are many cases in
which such a marriage really wouldn’t be right, it places an unnecessary
restriction on some men which God does not require.
Of course there are places in the Scripture where masculine
forms of words are used when they are intended to apply to both men and
women. For example in Galatians 6:7
(KJV):
There is a common sense, easy to understand hermeneutic for understanding
biblical gender usage conventions.
1.
Whenever feminine forms are used (referring to
people), it always talking about females and never males regardless of the
context.
2.
Whenever a masculine form refers to a
relationship to a woman (i.e. husband) or other family relationship (i.e.
father or son) it is only talking about males.
3.
If the context of the passage is about
relationships between men and women (not necessarily romantic or sexual
relationships) then the masculine forms are referring only to males.
4.
A masculine form may refer to a specific person
or specific group of males. This usually
will be clear from the context.
5.
Otherwise uses of masculine forms usually refer
to both males and females in most Bible translations. Whenever this is not the case, it will be
obvious from the context.
The idea that rules for marriage, divorce and remarriage
after divorce are different for men and women is an idea that may be hard for
people to accept, especially in this modern age of “gender equality”. But time and time again, history has borne
out that we need to trust Jesus completely.
Monkeying around with Jesus’ words always causes a great deal of harm.
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